New law allowed French citizens who live there for 10 years to vote locally. This opens the door theoretically for a dilution of the vote for “true locals” but enfranchises others.
I don’t know enough personally to weigh in but I don’t see a scenario where France comes out looking good no matter what they do.
I might be missing a lot of nuance, but living somewhere for 10 years should be enough to be allowed to vote locally. What was it before? A higher number or not at all?
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